I was watching a game before my son's game and there were 2 outs in the bottom of the last inning with a runner on 3rd, tie game. The batter struck out, catcher dropped the ball and threw out the slow runner at 1st and the first baseman touched 1st, didn't tag the runner so force out for 3rd out. However the runner from third ran home because of the past ball and the ump ruled that the runner from 3rd touched home BEFORE the out happened at 1st and the home team won.
To me, that's a force out at 1st so inning over, no run scored and the game should have continued. Agree or am I wrong?
To me, that's a force out at 1st so inning over, no run scored and the game should have continued. Agree or am I wrong?