6/15 MLB Tuesday

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Go Pittsburgh!
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All plays are for ONE Base Unit
& listed pitchers -

Yesterday: 1-2 -0.83U (one BS void bet
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)
YTD Straight Plays: 130-126 50.78% +5.65U
YTD Parlays: 1-2 33.33% +0.51U
Total: +6.16U


I need to vent..17 runs scored in the Phillies/Reds game in 8 innings but my OVER bet is void because the game was called after 8 innings. This can only be explained as the books robbing people. I've known about this of course and it has happened to me before but I will get ticked off every time - An under play should be void for obvious reasons but once it is over the total it is over the FREAKIN' total!
So, losing day yesterday that should have been a winning day.


For today -


Pittsburgh +108
Houston -105
Cleveland/NY Mets UNDER 8 +103
Tampa Bay +154
Tampa Bay/San Diego OVER 8 +112

Parlay TB +1.5 with San Francisco ML +153
 

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Sorry to jump in here...

But... Your over should obviously win because game was "over...

But... Unders should be voided? If the game was"over" then it could not go back to "under".

Your argument makes absolutely no sense and only serves to prove that you must not be a real player!

The rules on totals are ironclad and have always been the same.
Don't make yourslf look childish.

P.S. There is no crying in baseball!

Good luck with the fantacy picks!
 

Go Pittsburgh!
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Packer - You should be "sorry to jump in here". To suggest that I am not a real player is what is childish, what have I ever done to you Packer? I am quite versed and familiar with the rules. That is what I meant by "I've known about this of course and it has happened to me before but I will get ticked off every time". You need to read what I wrote again, try a little slower this time...I bet the over in the Reds game. The total was 9.5. There were 17 runs scored in 8 innings but the bet did not count because the game did not go a full nine innings. That is the rule but it doesn't mean it doesn't suck when you passed the total 7 runs ago. I said it makes sense that a play on the under would be voided because the game did not go a full nine innings.. there would be more time to score runs obviously. What did you think you read boss?
 

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"I said it makes sense that a play on the under would be voided because the game did not go a full nine innings.. there would be more time to score runs obviously."

Proves my points. The bet on the under already "lost" according to you. It can not possibly win so how should it be voided, and your "over" paid as a winner.

Here is how it works in baseball. A total either goes over, under, or sometimes it pushes. It can't go over and void the under, or under and void the over. Pretty obvious!

Books won't void one side of a bet and pay the other. That is why I say "childish". To even consider that possibility is childish.

Real players know these things. Not that you could not be disappointed. But recognize that it is not a BAD BEAT. Not a loss at all. Just no action. (As stated in the rules forever)
 

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My only input is that is was a bad rap because it did go over - and MLB counts it as an official game - did it not?
 

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oh I see

he said the under should be voided...

I dont understand that - can you explain?
 

Go Pittsburgh!
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Packer - We are not communicating here - I understand the rules and why they void it. The books will NEVER take that hit and quite frankly, they should not. However, it doen't mean that as a PLAYER, I cannot be salty that a great call was washed away by the rain. In a world where the player designs the rules(a fantasy of course), the over play wins and the under is a push based on common sense. I never suggested that I was wronged, but that losing a play in this fashion always ticks me off and it feels like the books rob you. This happens when people communicate by email or in these forums, you don't really know who you are communicating with. Next time, think about that before you come into a thread and needlessly attack someone.
 

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how is the under a push common sense?

If the over wins then why wouldnt the under lose?

Its one of those "one or the other" outcomes right?
 

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Jaypaw... You are balls on accurate.

B & G... Did not mean to attack anyone. Maybe attack your logic.
We all remember plays like this that got washed out and could have won. Ever had one the other way around?

Even though you said you knew the rule..

"This can only be explained as the books robbing people."

That sounds like you are questioning the rule. Not subject to question. All bets are win, lose, or push. You cannot win if the opposite side does not lose.

If you are a real player, you know you are in the vast MINORITY here. I am continually amazed by the petty crap that fills space on here.

Glad you are not in that group, B & G!

Good luck with your plays!
 

Go Pittsburgh!
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Jaypaw - in reality, yes - one side wins, one side loses, or both push/void. But if you played the over last night as I did, as long as the game goes nine innings you win. If you played the under you got a HUGE break. But, say the score was 5-4 at the end of the eighth and the game got called, it is a different situation. In last night's case you are right, common sense would not dictate a push on the under, it would dictate a loss. The books have a simple rule..must go nine innings or all totals are void. Where the rule sucks(if you played the over) is in last night's case where the total has already been surpassed, decided, etc.

Anyway, this subject has exhausted me. I was just having some fun commentary in my thread and I unintentionally opened a huge can of worms.

Good luck tonight guys. Peace.
 

Go Pittsburgh!
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Well, I thought I was done but now I just re-read my opening statement and I now can see where Packer was coming from. I think he could have responded in a more civil fashion of course but I can see how without him knowing me from a hole in the wall how he processed that. Yeah, in LAST night's case, it makes no sense to say the under should have been void and the over win. Here is what I was thinking -As a general rule, a play on the under would need to go nine innings for it to be proven that the total would not be surpassed in that time frame. An over could be achieved in the first inning however. Of course, that would automatically make the under a loser with that reasoning, not a void bet. The gripe I have with the rule is that it is a blanket rule. If the total has already been surpassed and it is an official game(last night's case), it seems to make sense to let the play stand: win or lose. I see now that I did not articulate that correctly. Two wrongs do not make a right and for slamming back at Packer I apologize. This may be the first time I was ever involved in the constant drama that goes on in here. Can't say I enjoyed it, hope it is the last time. Peace again.
 

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B & G,

You are a gentleman obviously.

I jumped too soon to be critical, and for that I am sorry.

I have one major pet peave on here which is all the wanna-be players posting and taking up space pretending to be real gamblers.

I see you do not fall into the wanna-be catagory Black & Gold, so maybe you agree with me.

This is like a game for lots of young kids and morons to post on here and dream of ever making one real bet.

Sort of gripes me as you all can tell.

Anyway, I think maybe the books are lumping totals in with runlines as far as bets that have to have listed pitchers go and have to go the distance to be official. We can all see how a runline wager could not be official if it does not go 8.5 or 9 (can't we)?

Have felt your pain before on runline plays getting rain shortened, but have had a couple save me money as well.

Best wishes B & G. Win em all!
 

Go Pittsburgh!
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Packer - all you had to do is look at my tagline to know which category I fall into -"Bring it, don't sing it". I've been posting here for two years. I like to keep a record and track my plays to keep me disciplined with money management and to track my improvement as a capper - I do it here instead of a word document because it is enjoyable to interact with other players. Thanks for the reply.
 

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Questions from a newbie on the cancelled game:

Had a two team parlay with Houston/Chicago Under (Lost) and Philly/Cinci Over (Cancelled). Do I lose this bet since I had one loser, or does the entire bet get cancelled?

Thanks in advance for your expertise. - Orion
 

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Sorry, but you would lose the parlay.

Any lose in a parlay loses the parlay regardless of the outcome of the other games.
 

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A person who would have the game under 9 and the game scoreless would have been just as pissed, rules are rules.
 

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Not really tomone. Lots of people found out the hard way over the weekend that "unders" are never "under" until the game is over. This regardless of score and inning. I believe it was a Padres game that points this out.

I see what you mean. But this is an over that is already "over". As compared to an under that could go crazy.
 

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