question re parlays and push on one team

IDENTITY · Jan 2, 2004

if i had a 150 parlay on okla st. +110 (which pushed) and under 30.5 in second half on miss game (win)

150 paid 458...what should be the payout? i only got 142, is that correct? if so, how is it calculated?

TheFunkMonkey · Jan 2, 2004

If you get a push, just calculate as if you didn't even bet on the pushed event.

In other words, you don't have a parlay with Ok St +110. You just have a single bet on the Under 30.5.

mvbski · Jan 2, 2004

if the total was -10 150x1.91=286.50 but not to sure what price you got

TheFunkMonkey · Jan 2, 2004

He got -105.

IDENTITY · Jan 2, 2004

she got 110

wilheim · Jan 2, 2004

A two teamer with +110 to -105 pays 464. Most likely he got -106. $150 at -106 = $142 payoff.

wil.

PS. Fractions vary depending on software.

mvbski · Jan 2, 2004

150x1.95=292.50

TheFunkMonkey · Jan 2, 2004

Ok, he/she/they got -110. My fault.

But if you got -110, then mvbski's calculation is correct.

If you got -105, that would give you 150*0.95238=$142.86.

So I'm not sure what your book did, but it appears that you got an extra $6. Happy New Year!

wilheim · Jan 2, 2004

MVB what are you saying? The payoff of a push and a winner for a $150 parlay with juice of +110 and -105 (?) should pay $292.50?

wil.

mvbski · Jan 2, 2004

if the winner was -105 yes his profit was 142 and chage dont have the exact figure for -105 handy, for a 150 bet

question re parlays and push on one team

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