QUESTION ABOUT WINNING %'S

PO69 · Dec 7, 2003

Obn another site, we had a contest last week. It was to pick 5 pro football games against the spread.

2 guys finished 4-1 and i finished 3-0-2. Now they said that i was only at 80% just like the 4-1.

How is 3-0-2 a .800 winning %??? Naturally I lost the tiebreaker as well, but does anyone else think that 3-0-2 is better than 4-1?

oscar · Dec 7, 2003

Normally those contest are the most wins not the guy who would have won the most money if he way laying -110. Since 4 is bigger than 3 I would have to say you lost. 4-1 is 80% and 3-0-2 is 60%.

WalkofLife · Dec 7, 2003

I agree with Oscar here.

3-0-2 shows three winners out of 5. That's clearly a 60%. 4-1 is 80%.

One can only count the winners, no "ifs".

Fishhead · Dec 7, 2003

LOL!

3-0-2 is 100% and up 3 units.

4-1 is 80% and up 2.9 units.

That is my ruling.

PO69 · Dec 7, 2003

I dont care what way you look at it, 3-0-2 is NOT A a 60% winning %

Sure I only won 3 out of 5 games, but that is a bit different when ties are invloved

drunkguy · Dec 7, 2003

depends on the contest. if the person running it is not a dipshit they would have made rules to deal with this kind of situation.

Also helps if contests are run with all lines ending in a half point to avoid this crap.

IMO 3-0-2 beats 4-1, or is at least "as good as"

QUESTION ABOUT WINNING %'S

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PO69

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