Stupid Betting Question

Jarbo · Mar 12, 2005

Can you parlay Moneyline bets?

If you took a 2 team parlay with one team +300 and the other +200 and both teams won, what would the pay out be?

Glaken · Mar 12, 2005

$600 if you bet $100.....or 6 to 1 odds on whatever you risk.

G

Jarbo · Mar 12, 2005

Thanks. So I take it the pay out would go up if the Moneyline odds were higher?

TONYO · Mar 12, 2005

The pay-out on a ml bet if both are +300 and +200 would be 1200 for 100 wager. Figure it this way Base 100 plus 300% plus 200% . i.e. if both were +150 the pay out would be 625. 100 plus 150% plus 150%

Fishhead · Mar 12, 2005

This is one reason that baseball has such a low hold percentage for books.

The public gets ripped off big time when they wager 4+ teams on a parlay in baskets or foots...........but in bases, granted they are wagering into a dime line, the parlay is basically paid at TRUE odds.

---FISH---

Jarbo · Mar 12, 2005

TONYO said:
The pay-out on a ml bet if both are +300 and +200 would be 1200 for 100 wager. Figure it this way Base 100 plus 300% plus 200% . i.e. if both were +150 the pay out would be 625. 100 plus 150% plus 150%

Thanks! This makes sense and I verified it playing with some potential wagers at my on-line book. Now I'm really going to grind.

:smoker2:

Luck

DarrylParsons · Mar 12, 2005

The easiest way to figure these parlay payouts is to use the European odds convention:

+300 in America is the same as 4.00 in Europe.

+200 translates to 3.00 in Europe.

Using European odds, you just multiply the numbers together: 4.00 x 3.00 = 12.00. Simple as that.

Now convert back to American and you get +1100