Watching last night's STL/SD game. Top 9, lead off single with Pujols at the plate. LaRussa did not want a steal attempt because Pujols would have been walked intentionally. So he stayed on 1st and let Pujols hit. This is my question.
If the guy successfully stole 2nd, they would have most likely walked Pujols putting runners on 1st & 2nd because 1st base was open. If SD was satisfied with this, why didn't they just walk him? The end result would have been the same, 1st & 2nd.
Same thing with runners on 1st and 2nd. They will pitch to the guy in this situation rather than intentionally walking him to load the bases. However, if runners were on 2nd & 3rd, they will intentionally walk the guy. End result would have been the same: bases loaded in both situation.
I don't understand this thought process.:sad3:
If the guy successfully stole 2nd, they would have most likely walked Pujols putting runners on 1st & 2nd because 1st base was open. If SD was satisfied with this, why didn't they just walk him? The end result would have been the same, 1st & 2nd.
Same thing with runners on 1st and 2nd. They will pitch to the guy in this situation rather than intentionally walking him to load the bases. However, if runners were on 2nd & 3rd, they will intentionally walk the guy. End result would have been the same: bases loaded in both situation.
I don't understand this thought process.:sad3: