Record keeping question

fucnluc · Apr 28, 2007

First time I've ever layed the spread (in this case runline -1.5 and moneyline) and ML for one team and one game in many years of betting any sport.

Let's assume that they both LOSE, as they will since I suck. Would this be considered 0-2 as two different plays or 0-1 as same team/game.

Snets · Apr 28, 2007

FWIW - I count them as 2 seperate plays b/c the ML could hit and the -1.5 not then you are 1-1

GL

snets

fucnluc · Apr 28, 2007

Snets said:
FWIW - I count them as 2 seperate plays b/c the ML could hit and the -1.5 not then you are 1-1

GL

snets

Good point, I'm completely retarded and ride the short bus.

Two seperate it is, obviously.

Stabler12 · Apr 28, 2007

Snets said:
FWIW - I count them as 2 seperate plays b/c the ML could hit and the -1.5 not then you are 1-1

GL

snets

I usually put a bracket around the 2 bets indicating they are 2 bets on the same game.

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fucnluc

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