So, if the Dodgers, Cards, Phillies, and Rockies are in and the dodgers end up with the best record, but can't play the wild card winner from their own division in the first round, does that mean they play the other division winner with the worst record between St. Louis and Philly?
If this is accurate, then wouldn't St. Louis and Philly have a lot to play for in terms of having the best record between their clubs in hopes of securing home field advantage first round against the Rockies instead having to travel? maybe i'm mixed up
If this is accurate, then wouldn't St. Louis and Philly have a lot to play for in terms of having the best record between their clubs in hopes of securing home field advantage first round against the Rockies instead having to travel? maybe i'm mixed up
