How to calculate no vig line?

My friend and I want to bet on the Pacquiao fight tonight. How would we calulate the no vig line? According to Pinny, the line is:

Clottey +671
Manny -850

Not sure how to do this. Any insight would be appreciated.

not sure about the math, but judging by Matchbook, 7-1 seems about correct.

Not sure how to do it either but came across this if anybody is interested in calculating it

http://0vigcalc.150m.com/calc.htm

+/- 670 now

money there at -680/ +660

looks to be dropping

Clottey +671
Manny -850

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Plus American odds to decimal odds -- Divide odds by 100 then add 1

Clottey (671/100) + 1 = 7.71

Neg American odds to decimal odds -- Divide 100 by odds then add 1

Manny (100/850) + 1 = 1.12

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Decimal odds to percentage chance == Divide 1 by decimal odds then multiply by 100

Clottey (1/7.71) x 100 = 12.97%
Manny (1/1.12) x 100 = 89.28%

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Bookmakers Overround == sum of the percentage chances minus 100

12.97 + 89.28 - 100 = 2.25% overround

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Bookmaker Theoretical hold (aka Vigorish) == Overround divided by sum of percentage chances times 100

2.25/(12.97+89.28) x 100 = 2.20% Vig

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Rmoving the vig to yield a 100% book is subjective in that you have to decide what proportion of the total overround is taken out of each competitor. eg Lines can be skewed to take more out of the underdog. However, in the simplest case where you take half the overround (ie 1.125%) out of each boxer then

Clottey 12.97 - 1.125 = 11.845%
Manny 89.28 - 1.125 = 88.155%

back to decimal

Clotty (1/11.845) x 100 = 8.44
Manny (1/88.155) x 100 = 1.13

back to American

Clotty (8.44 - 1) x 100 = +744
Manny 100/(1.13 - 1) = -769
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So

Clottey +671 becomes +744
Manny -850 becomes -769

:think2: :lol:

HVR: I'll buy that is correct math, but it is more theoretical. If you believe that is accurate, you can find value at Matchbook. You have Manny at -769, but could have bet it at -700 or less.