Hey soccer bettors , answer this please

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Self appointed RX World Champion Handicapper
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have never bet a soccer game in my life .

if i am convinced the usa wont beat england , couldnt i lock in a profit by betting england -188 and also the draw at + 330 ?

also cant see nigeria beating argentina ..

but then again , what do i know....
 

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you could go for the ml, and back it up a little on the draw. 1 unit on the ml and a .25 on the draw would give you a small profit at 5Dimes in case of a english win or draw.

but draws dont occur much in the World Cups, especially in the 1st round.

england 0 (win = win, draw = push) is around 1.16 decimal odds, and at the spread +0.5 @1.08, thats also not worth to play it.

i think they win by at least 1 goal, so the ml@1.53 or -1 @1.94 are solid bets imo.

gl on the action.
 
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Professional At All Times
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Spread Vs Moneyline

Would anyone care to explain the betting of the spread versus the moneyline as the spread has no draw. Might want to mention regulation time (including extra time) versus the whole game. I know this caused a lot of confusion for our posters in the 2006 World Cup.

Would be much appreciated for the good of all! Thanks in advance.
 

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if you bet the moneyline, thus the 1X2 like in ice hockey for example, you have the option of the home team, draw and away team in regulation.

if you bet on the spread, handicap, AH, it works like in the nfl and nba.

0, pk or DNB you win your wager if your teams wins. if a draw occurs its a push

+0.5 you win your wager if your team wins or draws.

+1 you win your wager if your team wins, draws. push if your team loses by 1.

+0.25 (or +0, 0.5) your bet is divided in 2 equal bets: one on the 0 (PK, DNB = Draw No Bet, where there's a push when a draw occurs), the other on the +0.5.
 

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in the three way betting where "draw" is an option yes it would be a loser. on two way betting if you bet say US +250 a draw is not a loss its no action
 

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